EMT Practice Test
1. Question Content...
Question1: Office mode means that:
Question4: The following graphic shows:
Question5: Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?
Question7: What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
Question9: Fill in the blank: Each cluster has __________ interfaces.
Question13: Fill in the blank: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .
Question18: Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?
Question20: Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.
Question24: What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?
Question25: What is Consolidation Policy?
Question26: Choose the BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection?
Question33: To optimize Rule Base efficiency the most hit rules should be where?
Question36: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
Question37: Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?
Question38: Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.
Question39: Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?
Question42: Which of the following is NOT a back up method?
Question43: Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?
Question45: Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
Question47: Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
Question48: By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?
Question49: Which application should you use to install a contract file?
Question50: Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?
Question62: What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?
Question64: What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?
Question65: The most important part of a site-to-site VPN deployment is the ________ .
Question66: Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.
Question67: Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
Question70: In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
Question71: When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?
Question72: What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?
Question73: Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?
Question74: What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?
Question75: What happens if the identity of a user is known?
Question76: What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?
Question77: Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
Question78: Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?
Question79: Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
Question80: Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?
Question82: Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?
Question83: How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?
Question84: Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.
Question87: Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?
Question92: Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?
Question93: Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?
Question94: What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
Question95: What is the default method for destination NAT?
Question96: Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .
Question98: How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?
Question101: Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
Question103: Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?
Question106: What are the three authentication methods for SIC?
Question108: Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
Question111: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
Question115: DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?
Question116: What happens if the identity of a user is known?
Question117: Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?
Question119: What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?
Question125: What are the two high availability modes?
Question129: What are the two types of address translation rules?
Question130: Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?
Question138: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?
Question139: The fw monitorutility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
Question142: Packages and licenses are loaded from all of theses sources EXCEPT
Question146: How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?
Question148: Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?
Question150: What is the purpose of Captive Portal?
Question151: Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
Question153: Which default user has full read/write access?
Question158: In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:
Question159: Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .
Question164: In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of
Question168: Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?
Question169: What is the default shell for the command line interface?
Question172: As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?
Question174: Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?
Question176: Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?
Question177: Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the Best answer.
Question180: Fill in the blanks: VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .
Question181: Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?
Question183: What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?
Question187: Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?
Question192: What is the order of NAT priorities?
Question194: Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?
Question195: What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?
Question197: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
Question200: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
Question201: Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?
Question202: Choose what BEST describes a Session.
Question204: Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
Question206: The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?
Question212: The Captive Portal tool:
Question215: Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?
Question216: Which policy type has its own Exceptions section?
Question218: Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitoris used to troubleshoot _____________
Question220: Why would an administrator see the message below?
Question225: What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?
Question230: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?
Question233: Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
Question234: Message digests use which of the following?
Question235: What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?
Question236: NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
Question237: Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
Question238: Fill in the blank: Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
Question241: With which command can view the running configuration of Gaia-based system.
Question242: Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
Question245: Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?
Question249: When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:
























